Do we feel because we perceive? Or Dodo we perceive because we feel?
As per mahā-vedallasutta(MN43)
Yaṁ vedeti taṁ sañjānāti, yaṁ sañjānāti taṁ vijānāti.
so vedanā ->sañjānāti> sañjānāti ->vijānāti> vijānāti
But shouldn't this order seemsbe in reverse.?
becauseBecause first, we cognise (vijānāti), then recognise (sañjānāti) and then we feel. isnt, isn't it. so? Goenka also confirms this sequence. vijānāti->sañjānāti->vedeti.
Or is there a different between Viññanā viññanā and vijānāti as well saññā and sañjānāti ?
Nibbedhikasutta(AN 6.63) says
Phassa is nidānasambhavo for vedanā/saññā/sankhārā.
as if vedanā, saññā and sankhārā co-arise. but are they independent of each other?
Note: (Adding comments of @blue_ego)
consider this question as non sequential. When I say first it means second is dependent on first.
Take any meditation practice. we just practice to change perception, and feeling changes accordingly. but vice versa is not true.